Pathology is a cornerstone of medical knowledge, playing a vital role in understanding diseases and their mechanisms. For NEET PG aspirants, mastering this subject is not just about scoring well but also about building a strong foundation for a successful medical career. While the vastness of the Pathology syllabus might seem daunting, focusing on NEET PG Pathology Previous Year Questions (PYQs) can significantly boost your preparation. 

Here are 10 key Pathology PYQs presented in blog style format to make your learning more engaging and help you ace the exam:

Question 1: The Case of the Swollen Glands 

A 40-year-old woman presents with B symptoms (fever, weight loss, night sweats) and enlarged lymph nodes. A lymph node biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis and the associated first-line treatment regimen? 

A. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, treated with R-CHOP regimen
B. Hodgkin Lymphoma, treated with ABVD regimen
C. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia, treated with Ibrutinib
D. Reactive Lymphadenitis, treated with antibiotics

Answer: B. Hodgkin Lymphoma, treated with ABVD regimen

Explanation: The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is pathognomonic for Hodgkin Lymphoma. The ABVD regimen (Adriamycin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine) is a standard chemotherapy protocol for this condition. 

Question 2: The Colon Polyp Mystery 

During a routine colonoscopy, a 60-year-old male is found to have a hyperplastic polyp. Which characteristics are most typically associated with this type of polyp? 

A. High malignant potential
B. Frequent progression to adenocarcinoma
C. Lacks malignant potential
D. Requires immediate surgical resection

Answer: C. Lacks malignant potential
Explanation: Hyperplastic polyps are considered benign and generally do not progress to malignancy. They are distinct from adenomatous polyps, which do carry a risk of malignant transformation. 

Question 3: The Jaundiced Infant’s Liver Biopsy 

A month-old infant presents with jaundice, clay-colored stools, conjugated hyperbilirubinemia and a liver biopsy showing periductal proliferation with inflammatory infiltrates. What is the most probable diagnosis? 

A. Hemolytic anaemia
B. Physiological jaundice
C. Biliary atresia
D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Answer: C. Biliary atresia 

Explanation: Biliary atresia is a congenital condition characterised by the obstruction of bile ducts, leading to the clinical features described and the histological findings on liver biopsy. 

Question 4: The Diabetic Foot Ulcer Nightmare 

A diabetic patient experiences sudden perineal pain, foul-smelling discharge and rapid necrosis of the soft tissue extending along fascial planes. What is the likely diagnosis in this patient? 

A. Cellulitis
B. Erysipelas
C. Necrotising fasciitis (Fournier’s Gangrene)
D. Deep vein thrombosis

Answer: C. Necrotising fasciitis (Fournier’s Gangrene)

Question 5: Chronic Cough and Occupational Exposure 

A 58-year-old male smoker with a history of occupational asbestos exposure presents with chronic cough and shortness of breath. A chest X-ray shows pleural thickening and calcified nodules. Microscopy of a pleural biopsy reveals spindle-shaped cells with papillary structure and calcification. What histological finding is most likely in the biopsy?

A.Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Mesothelioma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma

Answer: B. Mesothelioma 

Explanation: The clinical history of asbestos exposure, radiological findings and the histological appearance of spindle cells with papillary structures and calcification are highly suggestive of mesothelioma, a malignant tumour of the pleura. 

Question 6: Minimal Change Disease in a Child 

A 5-year-old boy presents with a sudden onset of generalised oedema. Laboratory investigations reveal massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia and hyperlipidemia. A renal biopsy shows effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy, while light microscopy appears normal. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
B. Minimal Change Disease (MCD)
C. Membranous Nephropathy
D. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

Answer: B. Minimal Change Disease (MCD)

Explanation: Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is characterised by the hallmark feature of effacement of foot processes on electron microscopy with unremarkable light microscopy findings. 

Question 7: The Enigmatic Autoimmune Disease 

A 35-year-old woman presents with dry eyes, dry mouth and recurrent arthritis. Lab tests show positive anti-Ro (SSA) and anti-La (SSB) antibodies. A salivary gland biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration and atrophy of acinar glands. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
C. Sjögren’s Syndrome
D. Systemic Sclerosis

Answer: C. Sjögren’s Syndrome

Explanation: The constellation of dry eyes, dry mouth (sicca symptoms), arthritis and positive anti-Ro/La antibodies with characteristic salivary gland biopsy findings is diagnostic of Sjogren’s Syndrome. 

Question 8: The Myocardial Infarction Markers 

A patient presents with acute chest pain. Which of the following markers is the most sensitive and specific for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction in the initial hours?

A. Creatine Kinase-MB (CK-MB)
B. Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)
C. Troponin T and I
D. Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) 

Answer: C. Troponin T and I 

Explanation: Cardiac troponins T and I are highly sensitive and specific biomarkers for myocardial injury and are the preferred markers for diagnosing acute myocardial infarction, especially in the early stages. 

Question 9: Chronic Hepatitis and Ground Glass Appearance 

A liver biopsy from a patient with chronic hepatitis B infection shows hepatocytes with a finely granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm. What is this characteristic histological appearance known as? 

A. Steatosis
B. Mallory bodies
C. Ground glass hepatocytes
D. Councilman bodies

Answer: C. Ground glass hepatocytes 

Explanation: The finely granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm in hepatocytes in chronic hepatitis B is due to the accumulation of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and is referred to as ground glass appearance. 

Question 10: The Renal Cell Carcinoma Variant 

A kidney mass is identified in a 62-year-old male. Histological examination of the resected tumour reveals large cells with clear cytoplasm and prominent cell membranes arranged in nests and cords. What subtype of Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) is most likely based on these findings?

A. Papillary RCC
B. Chromophobe RCC
C. Clear cell RCC
D. Medullary RCC

Answer: C. Clear cell RCC

Explanation: Clear cell RCC is the most common subtype of renal cell carcinoma and is histologically characterised by cells with clear cytoplasm due to the accumulation of glycogen and lipids. 

Importance of Pathology PYQs in NEET PG

Practising NEET PG pathology previous year questions is an indispensable part of your preparation strategy. They help you: 

• Identify high-yield pathology NEET PG topics like cell injury, inflammation, neoplasia, haematology and genetic disorders. 
• Become familiar with the format of pathology NEET PG recall questions. 
• Refine your understanding of concepts by seeing them applied in clinical scenarios.
• Improve time management and test-taking skills. 

Remember, you can find a wealth of NEET PG pathology question PDFs with solutions on various platforms to aid your practice. Don’t just memorise the answers, strive to understand the underlying pathology and clinical relevance. This approach will not only help you score well but also lay a strong foundation for your future medical career. 

PDF download link – click here